But James I was Aragonese or Catalan?

BarcelonaWho has not found themselves immersed, these hot days, in an absurd discussion with a Madrilenian or an Aragonese about whether Catalonia has ever been an independent territory or if they were mere counties dependent on the Kingdom of Aragon? About whether James I was Catalan or Aragonese? In these cases, it is always good to have a good historical summary at hand, such as the one published these days in the newspaper ElPuntAvui by historian Cristian Palomo. This is precisely one of the functions of the press: to translate historiographical (or scientific in general) erudition into popular pieces accessible to the general public. Not everyone needs to know the genealogical tree of the House of Barcelona inside out, but we should have some rudiments that allow us to easily and quickly discredit some theses.

Palomo explains very well, for example, how the title of Count of Barcelona is not just another noble title (like the Count of Godó, let's say) but is the title of a sovereign, a prince, almost since its constitution by Charlemagne. That is why in the Middle Ages a count could be much more powerful than a king, which is exactly what happened in the case of Count of Barcelona Ramon Berenguer IV when he married Princess Peronella of Aragon. The fact that from then on their children held the title of King of Aragon above that of Count of Barcelona does not hide that it was actually this latter title that gave historical continuity and patrimonial value to the house. Palomo explains that the title of Count of Barcelona "is one of the highest and most prestigious comital titles in the world", and as proof it is what John of Bourbon chose to declare himself as an aspirant to the throne. There are few comital titles in the world that have survived for more than a millennium, always linked to the sovereignty of a territory.